Master-at-Arms (MA) C School Test 2 Practice

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• Under General Order 9, when should you call the commander of the post?
• Which is a Navy example of a limited access area?
• Which document tracks the custody and disposition of physical evidence?
• Which term is defined as a wrongful act knowingly committed?
• Infraction definition?
• What is the purpose of evidence tagging and bagging?
• Which are basic elements of a proper post check at an access control point?
• A system that covers issuance of traffic warnings or tickets is known as what?
• Which safety rule is violated if you point a firearm at a fellow officer during a training exercise?
• During unloading for maintenance, which step confirms the firearm is not capable of firing?
• Subpoena Service is the process used to issue subpoenas in which courts?
• A subpoena is a court order directing a person to appear in court or to produce documents.
• Which statement is true about Title 10 in the United States Code?
• Subpoena Service permits service in civil, federal, and state courts upon members, civilians, employees, or contractors.
• OPNAVINST 5580/17B pertains to?
• What is the principle behind search and seizure within the Navy while maintaining rights?
• Reasonable Suspicion definition?
• Which document is used to notify an individual of a court violation?
• Which term corresponds to 'Taking into custody'?
• Under General Order 2, what are you required to be prepared to do?
• In LOCAL, which data element does 'Location' primarily identify?
• In the sequence Stop, assess, verify authorization per protocol, escalate to the control point, document the incident, what step comes immediately after verifying authorization?
• LEOSA stands for which act?
• When documenting a witness statement, which elements should be included?
• Interrogation in law enforcement is defined as:
• In the MA use-of-force continuum, which element is explicitly listed as a last resort?
• Which act protects federal employees from personal liability for torts committed?
• The Department of Defense uses both military and civilian laws to enforce and ensure good order.
• What is criminal law?
• Which form documents an alcohol-related incident?
• SARA stands for?
• How far should your vehicle be from the suspect's vehicle?
• What is the correct protocol for handling contraband found during a search?
• Conspiracy against rights is defined by which statute?
• What action is performed next after establishing a perimeter and ensuring safety at a crime scene?
• What is the Field Interview Card (FIC) used to document?
• The term 'tort' refers to what?
• What is the basic sequence in a risk assessment for security operations?
• Which of the following is not a listed step in securing a crime scene?
• NCIC stands for what?
• What is the focus of General Order 11?
• Which document is used to record a field interview conducted by a law enforcement officer?
• Which statement best defines the purpose of the chain of custody?
• What is the primary objective when conducting a door-to-door search under policy?
• Which safety principle explicitly prohibits pointing a weapon at anything you do not intend to shoot?
• What is the safe handling procedure when unloading a firearm for maintenance on a range?
• What is the appropriate initial response to a suspicious package?
• What details should a SITREP include during an incident?
• How should you handle a detainee who becomes violent?
• Aggravating factors are defined as what?
• When are you allowed to quit your post according to the general orders?
• The right to a speedy trial by jury and representation by an attorney is guaranteed by which amendment?
• Why is maintaining situational awareness important during patrols?
• The Federal Tort Claims Act provides protection from personal liability for torts.
• Probable cause is defined as what?
• Which General Order addresses saluting officers and colors/standards not cased?
• Felony definition?
• Which amendment protects Freedom of Religion, Speech, Press, Assembly, and Petition?
• Types of Evidence includes which of the following?
• Which amendment addresses due process and equal protection for individuals within the United States, including the states?
• Elements of a crime include the statutory elements and what else that can increase punishment?
• What is the first step when pulling someone over?
• Which list contains both 'testimonial' and 'documentary' as types?
• OPNAVINST 5530.14E governs which program?
• After tagging and sealing contraband, what should be done with it?
• Elements of a crime include what?
• What does FPCON stand for and what are its levels?
• A document that outlines the essential facts of the offense charged is called a what?
• Which of the following are indicators of suspicious activity you should report immediately?
• How many whistle blows are used to signal stop and proceed?
• What details should be included on an evidence bag/tag?
• CLEOC stands for what organization?
• What is the correct order of operations for a firearms malfunction on the range?
• Which term describes a civil wrong that can lead to a lawsuit?
• Conspiracies to deprive rights are defined by which statute?
• Detention is defined as?
• What is the correct meaning of "bearing firearms in a post" when you "receive, obey, and pass on" orders?
• An order signed by a judge naming the person to be arrested for a specific crime is a what?
• Which of the following describes the proper trespass warning procedure on a Navy installation?
• What is the difference between a search incident to arrest and a frisk?
• Which provision creates a civil action for deprivation of rights?
• Name two categories of evidence and give examples.
• Which term describes a person who sees an event and can provide firsthand information?
• Opnavinst 5580/1 retention policy specifies what?
• Which term describes offenses that may be punished by a fine or local jail time under one year?
• Witness is defined as:
• What does General Order 8 require you to do in case of a fire or disorder?
• How should you conduct a stop-and-search without violating rights?
• Which of the following is NOT a category of crime listed in the material?
• What is the correct method for evacuations during a fire alarm on an installation?
• A subpoena is a court order for a person or documents to appear in court.
• Which term describes a major offense involving violence?
• Which statement best differentiates interrogation from an interview?
• Misdemeanor definition?
• Suspect is defined as:
• Which acronym corresponds to the process of Scanning, Analysis, Response, Assessment?
• Posse Comitatus Act: which statement describes its purpose?
• Which amendment guards against unreasonable searches and seizures?
• Which data element is NOT part of LOCAL?
• Which document governs Navy physical security and law enforcement on a base?
• In the low-ready position, where should the weapon be oriented?
• Which Navy General Order requires you to take charge of the post and all government property in view?
• A federal arrest warrant is used to arrest individuals for offenses under which authority?
• Which statement best describes the difference between Article 92 and Article 134 in the UCMJ?
• What is the difference between exclusion and eviction in installation control?
• Which steps are included in responding to a suspicious package?
• How should you carry a holstered sidearm when not in use?
• Crimes against property are defined as which?
• Which title in the United States Code governs the Armed Forces and includes the Uniform Code of Military Justice?
• Which statute provides the civil remedy for rights violations by government officials?
• What is the first step in securing a crime scene?
• How does MA coordinate with local law enforcement during an incident on a Navy installation?
• After evacuating during a fire alarm, what should you do before resuming duties?
• What is the basic firearm safety rule for handling any weapon in MA?
• Which of the following best describes the relationship between Non-Judicial Punishment and Captain's Mast?
• Categories of Crime include which three types?
• What are the primary responsibilities of a MA patrol on an installation?
• What is the proper response when you encounter a suspected unauthorized individual attempting to gain access?
• UCMJ stands for which of the following?
• Captain's Mast is a hearing used to administer which type of punishment?
• Which term denotes the most frequently occurring state-law tort arising from government vehicle operation?
• Which instruction governs tagging of evidence?
• What procedure should you perform before handing a firearm to another person?
• Which of the following is a component of the MA use-of-force continuum?
• Under the Assimilative Crimes Act, state law applies to conduct on federal lands; this applies as provided by which statute?
• Juvenile is defined as:
• Which statement best contrasts criminal law and civil law?
• Which term means Taking into custody?
• Which form records the receipt and processing of a detained person before or after trial?
• Which instruction addresses military rights during enforcement actions?
• Which form logs the custody of evidence property?
• Which term best describes a person thought to commit a crime?
• Interview is described as:
• Which amendment extends due process to the states?
• Which is the highest alert level in FPCON?
• Civil law is primarily focused on actions that injure whom?
• In stop procedures, LOCAL data elements include which of the following?
• What is the correct stance for a ready position (low-ready) when inspecting a weapon?
• What is the purpose of maintaining chain of custody for collected evidence?
• After issuing a trespass warning, what should you do next according to standard operating procedures?
• What does General Order 6 require regarding orders from command authorities?
• Article 15 Non-Judicial Punishment is commonly known as which of the following terms?
• What Act makes state law applicable to conduct occurring on lands reserved or acquired by the Federal government as provided in 18 U.S.C. § 13?
• Which term means 'Restrict freedom of movement'?
• Define a limited access area and provide a Navy example.
• The rights to remain silent, protection against double jeopardy, and due process are associated with which amendment?
• The Bivens action refers to a lawsuit for damages against which party?
• Under the UCMJ, which article covers failure to obey a lawful order or regulation?
• Which General Order instructs you to walk your post in a military manner, with alertness and readiness to report irregularities?
• Which General Order covers reporting all violations of orders you are instructed to enforce?
• Which term best matches 'Taking into custody'?
• Which term best describes a minor rule violation?
• What is the primary purpose of a SITREP in MA operations?
• In the MA use-of-force continuum, deadly force is intended as what?
• DD 1408 is the form used to issue what?
• What is the primary purpose of post orders in MA security operations?
• OPNAVINST 5580/17A pertains to?
• What should be recorded when documenting a vehicle stop at an entry control point?
• Which amendment prohibits cruel or unusual punishment?
• Which General Order forbids talking to unauthorized persons except when in the line of duty?
• What are common signs of insider threat a MA guard should report?
• Custody is defined as?
• An arrest warrant is an order signed by a judge naming the person to be arrested for a specific crime.
• What are the key components of proper radio reporting during an incident?
• What is the chain of custody in MA investigations?
• Which instruction concerns retention and electronic storage of reports?
• Escalating an incident to the control point serves what purpose?
• Which option correctly defines 'a suspicion based on specific facts; less than probable cause'?
• Which MA tool is used to document non-threatening stops and gather basic information for reporting?
• NOT a listed type of evidence?
• The US Code of Law is best described as what?
• When conducting a door-to-door search at a facility, which approach aligns with policy?
• Which action aligns with the safety emphasis of General Order 11?
• When are emergency lights and sirens authorized?
• LEOSA allows qualified current and retired law-enforcement to carry.
• Opnavinst 5580/3 covers which topic?
• What is the primary objective of anti-terrorism/force protection (AT/FP) measures at an installation?
• OPNAVINST 5580/9 concerns which authority?
• Deprivation of rights under color of law is defined by which statute?
• Consolidated Law Enforcement Operations Center abbreviation?